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? a posé la question dans Politics & GovernmentLaw & Ethics · il y a 2 ans

Does the presumption of innocence in sexual assault means that consent is presumed unless proven otherwise beyond a reasonable doubt?

3 réponses

Pertinence
  • Athena
    Lv 7
    il y a 2 ans

    No, not at all.

    In some (not all) justice systems it is up to the State to PROVE the guilt of a suspect. That has nothing to do with what the victim consented to or did not. The lack of consent can be evidence of the accused guilty, but it is not assumed that the victim was responsible until proven otherwise.

  • il y a 2 ans

    Yes but there is some variation in what is seen legally as "proven". There are virtually never any witnesses or video to a rape but that doesn't make it OK or legal.

  • ?
    Lv 6
    il y a 2 ans

    it means the burden of proof lies on the accuser/prosecutor.

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